Coupon Rate*Face/Par Value*1-(1+interest rate%)^-n/Market interest rate+ Par value/(1+market interest)^n
6.4%*1000
1-(1.075)^-25/0.075+1000/(1.075)^25
877.3836
Problem 26
A
The number of coupon bonds to sell
45000000/1000
45000
PV
174.1101
The number of zero bonds to sell
45000000/174.110
258457.3
B
FV
45000000
PMT
.06*45000000
PMT
2700000
Repayment
47700000
Zero bonds
Bonds
258457
Par value
1000
Repayment
258457000
C
45000
bonds to sell
60
2700000
Per years interest rate
(1-0.35)
0.65
1755000
Cash outflow
Zero
FV
1000
n
30
i
6%
PV
174.1101309
PV
184.5567388
Interest
10.44660785
Bonds
258457
Tax Rate
0.35
Cash inflow
944999.6242
Question #8
Years
14.5
YTM
6.10%
Current Price
1038
P=1038=C(PVIFA, 3.4%,29)+1000(PVIFA,3.5%,29)
C=1038/27.40
37.88321168
Since it is semi annual payment therefore the coupon payment will be
2*37.883
75.76642336
Let the par value of the bond is 1000
Coupon Rate
0.075766423
Question #10
The fisher equation shows the exact relationship between nominal and real interest rate, and inflation is
(1+R)=(1+r)(1+h)
(1+2.5)=(1+4.1)(1+h)
(3.5)=(5.1)(1+h)
(1+h)=3.5/5.1
0.68627451
h=1-0.68627451
0.31372549
Question #12
(1+R)=(1+r)(1+h)
(1+.107)/(1+0.37)-1
0.808029197
r
0.191970803
r=19.19%
Question #1
Answer.
The yield to maturity is the required rate of the return on a bond expressed as a nominal annual interest rate. For non callable bonds the yield to maturity and the required rate of the return are interchangeable terms. Unlike Yield to Maturity and the required return, the coupon rate is not a return which is used as interest rate in the cash flow valuation of the bond but is a fixed percentage of the par over the life of the bond used for setting the coupon payment amount. For instance, coupon rate on bond is still 10% while the yield to maturity is 8% (Brodrick, 2010).
Question #14
Answer.
If the bond is sold on 100% of par, then the bond is premium bond. Thus, the current yield is
Current Yield = Annual Coupon Payment /Price = 75/1255.00
Current Yield = 5.978%
Under ASK YLD column, YTM = 5.32%
Bid Ask Spread = 125:16-125:15 = 1/32
It is intermediate.
Question #18
Answer.
Coupon bonds
9.20%
Years to maturity
18
Selling price
106.80%
Current Yield
?
YTM
?
Annual Yield
?
Po
1068
Po
1068=(PVIFA9.2%, 18)+1000(PVIFA8%,18)
1068/260.759
4.095728
%
Semiannual interest payment
YTM=2*4.095728
8.191456
Current Yield= Annual Coupon Payment/Price
0.078652
Effective annual yield = (1+0.04095)^2-1
0.083577
The case Study Solution
Data
The bond issuer/the borrower/the bosses: Mark Sexton and Todd Story
Bond value: $35 million
Bond maturity: 10 years
Answer 1.
A bond will have lower coupon rate if it is with collateral. A Bond holder has the claim on the collateral, even in bankruptcy (Brodrick et al, 2010). There is an asset provided by collateral so that bond holders can claim, in this way the risk is reduced in case of default. The down side of collateral is that the company generally cannot sell the asset used as collateral, and they have to keep an asset in good working order (Brigham, 2011).
Answer2.
Senior bonds get the full payment in the bankruptcy proceeding before subordinates bonds receive any repayment. It is obvious that the more the seniority of the bond the coupon rate will be lower. A problem might arise in that the bond covenant may restrict the firm by issuing any future bonds to the current bonds.
Answer3.
Because of the sinking cost the coupon rate will be reduced because bond holders are being guaranteed partially. Sinking fund has the problem because the Firm has to make the interim payments into face default. So, it means the firm must be able to generate the cash flows.
Answer 4.
A provision having particular prices and call date will increase the coupon rate. The call provision can only be used when this on the advantage for the business, thus it is disadvanatge for the bond ...